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August 16th, 2024Hi there!
You’re looking at a multiple-choice question from QBank Prepper (the newest of four distinct learning formats available in Clinical Odyssey). Try it out, and have fun improving your clinical skills.
A 67-year-old man comes to his primary care physician because of a 3-day history of fever, cough, and rhinorrhea. His symptoms have worsened for the past 24 hours. He also has a headache, myalgia, and general malaise. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus type II, obesity, and arterial hypertension, but without evidence of severe renal insufficiency or severe hepatic impairment. Drug history includes insulin therapy and ramipril 5 mg. His temperature is 38.4 °C (101.12 °F), pulse is 101/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg and SpO2 is 97% on room air. Physical examination shows pharyngeal hyperemia but no signs of crackles throughout both lung fields. A rapid antigen test for SARS CoV-2 results positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?